# PCAT exam practice test questions

PCAT exam practice test questions

#### About the PCAT

The PCAT is a specialized test that helps identify qualified applicants to pharmacy colleges. It measures general academic ability and scientific knowledge necessary for the commencement of pharmaceutical education. The PCAT is constructed specifically for colleges of pharmacy.

## Important Notice to Candidates

The Pharmacy College Admission Test (PCAT®) is administered in a computer-based test (CBT) format. For the 2018–2019 testing cycle, the standard administration of the PCAT will occur on one or more dates in July, September, October, November, January and February.

THERE ARE TWO DEADLINES. If you meet the “Registration and Schedule” deadline, you will likely get your preferred testing date, time, and location. PCAT exam practice test questions If you wait until the “Late Registration and Schedule” deadline, you will be charged additional fees, with no guarantee that you will get your preferred testing date, time, and location.

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#### Chem

200 mL of an ideal gas is placed in a piston and is held at a pressure of 500 torr. If the temperature is held constant and the pressure is increased to 650 torr, what is the new volume of the gas? PCAT exam practice test questions.

75 mL

154 mL

220 mL
300

Question #1

200 mL of an ideal gas is placed in a piston and is held at a pressure of 500 torr. If the temperature is held constant and the pressure is increased to 650 torr, what is the new volume of the gas?

1. 75 mL
2. 154 mL
3. 220 mL
4. 300 mL

The correct answer is (B)

When the pressure of a gas increases at constant temperature, the volume decreases. Therefore, before calculation, choices C and D can be eliminated. Since PV/nT is constant, and the temperature and number of moles of gas are kept constant, we can derive the relationship, P1V1 = P2V2. Rearranging this equation to find the final volume of gas, we get: V2 = P1V1/P2. By substituting numbers into this equation, we get: V2 = (500 × 200)/650, or 154 mL, choice B. Another way to arrive at the correct answer is to notice that the original pressure (500 mL) divided by the new pressure (650 mL) is approximately 3/4, so the new volume is around 3/4 of 200 mL or 150 mL, and this figure is closest to choice B. PCAT exam practice test questions.

### BIOLOGY

At two independently assorting loci, a man has the following genotype: GgHH. He marries a woman with the genotype ggHh. What is the probability that they will have a child who has the same genotype as the father? PCAT exam practice test questions.

0

1/8

1/4
1/2

Question #2

At two independently assorting loci, a man has the following genotype: GgHH. He marries a woman with the genotype ggHh. What is the probability that they will have a child who has the same genotype as the father?

1. 0
2. 1/8
3. 1/4
4. 1/2

The correct answer is (C)

This is a “probability” genetics question that can be answered by practical application of Mendel’s Laws. Mendel’s Law of Segregation states that alleles segregate during meiosis, resulting in gametes that carry only one allele for any given inherited trait (i.e., haploid gametes). Mendel’s Law of Independent Assortment states that unlinked genes assort independently during meiosis. By applying Mendel’s Laws, we can conclude that each parent in the problem can produce two possible gametes. The father can produce the gametes GH and gH, and the mother can produce the gametes gH and gh. The probability of the father’s genotype (GgHH) appearing in the progeny can be determined by calculating the number of different gamete combinations that will produce this genotype. PCAT exam practice test questions. Thus, a GgHH zygote can only be produced by the fusion of a GH gamete and a gH gamete. PCAT exam practice test questions. The probability that one parent will donate a particular gamete is independent of the probability that the other parent will donate a particular gamete. Thus, the probability of the father donating a GH gamete is 1/2, and the probability of the mother donating a gH gamete is 1/2. The probability of producing a genotype that requires the occurrence of both these independent events is equal to the product of the individual probabilities that these events will occur. Thus, 1/2 x 1/2 = 1/4, so the probability that this couple will have a child with the genotype GgHH is 1/4, or choice C.

## BIOLOGY

In a certain genetically stable population, the frequency of a recessive allele (for a trait with two alleles) is 0.6. What is the frequency of individuals expressing the dominant trait?

0.16

0.24

0.36
0.64

Question #3

In a certain genetically stable population, the frequency of a recessive allele (for a trait with two alleles) is 0.6. What is the frequency of individuals expressing the dominant trait? PCAT exam practice test questions.

1. 0.16
2. 0.24
3. 0.36
4. 0.64

The correct answer is (D)

The question stem asks you to determine the frequency of individuals expressing the dominant trait in a genetically stable population. However, before you do that, you need to determine the allelic frequencies in the population. This question involves a practical application of the Hardy-Weinberg equation. The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium states that within a genetically stable population, the gene frequencies of dominant and recessive alleles will not change over time. Two mathematical expressions are associated with the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. The first relationship, p + q = 1, describes the relative allelic frequencies in a population. p is defined as the frequency of the dominant allele and q is defined as the frequency of the recessive allele, and the sum of both those frequencies adds up to 1, or 100%. The second relationship, p2 + 2 pq+ q2 = 1, describes the relative genotypic frequencies in the population. p2 represents homozygous, or dominant pp genotypes; q2 represents homozygous, or frequency of the dominant allele, p, by the mathematical relationship p + q = 1. PCAT exam practice test questions. Therefore, the frequency of p is .4 because .6 + .4 = 1. Next, you need to determine the frequency of individuals expressing the dominant trait by recessive qq genotypes; and 2pq represents the frequency of heterozygotes, or hybrids.applying the second relationship, p2 + 2 pq+ q2 = 1. The individuals expressing the dominant trait are those that have the pp and pq genotypes, so to find the total frequency of individuals expressing the dominant trait, you add p2 and 2pq. Thus, p2 = .4 x .4, or .16 and 2pq = 2 x .6 x .4, or .48. If you add the two together, you get .16 + .48, or .64. Thus, .64 is the correct frequency of individuals expressing the dominant trait, and choice D is correct. PCAT exam practice test questions PCAT exam practice test questions.

### CHEMISTRY

Under what conditions do gases exhibit ideal behavior?

Low pressures and low temperatures

Low pressures and high temperatures

High pressures and high temperatures
High pressures and low temperatures

Question #4

Under what conditions do gases exhibit ideal behavior?

1. Low pressures and low temperatures
2. Low pressures and high temperatures
3. High pressures and high temperatures
4. High pressures and low temperatures

The correct answer is (B)

At high pressures, gas particles are forced close together; therefore, intermolecular forces between the particles become significant, and the gas deviates from ideality. On the other hand, at low pressures, the gas particles are far apart from each other, so they cannot interact, and intermolecular forces are insignificant. Therefore, choices C and D can be eliminated. Ideal gas behavior is also observed at high temperatures because the gas particles possess a large amount of kinetic energy—large enough for the particles to overcome their attractive forces towards each other. As the temperature is lowered, the kinetic energy of the particles decreases, so the particles do not have enough energy to break away from each other, and attractive forces become significant. Therefore, choice A can be eliminated, and choice B is the correct response PCAT exam practice test questions.

## MATH

If a multivitamin supplement costs \$for 100 pills, how many pills can be bought for \$10?

10/n

1000/n

10n
1000n

Question #5

If a multivitamin supplement costs \$for 100 pills, how many pills can be bought for \$10?

1. 10n
2. 1000n

The correct answer is (B)

In this question, we can buy 100 pills for \$n . We are asked to determine how many pills we can buy for \$10. First, let’s determine how many pills can be bought for \$1: we can purchase . Therefore, \$10 would buy 10 times , or . Therefore, we can purchase  for \$10. PCAT exam practice test questions.

## MATH

Which of the following is the greatest?

2⁶

4⁴

162

Question #6

Which of the following is the greatest?

1. 26
2. 44
3. 83
4. 162

The correct answer is (C)

In this question, we are asked to determine the answer choice with the greatest value. It is important to notice that all the answer choices are powers of 2: 2, 4, 8, 16, and 32. Therefore, all of the answer choices need to be expressed powers of 2. To start, let’s leave choice A alone because it already has 2 as its base term. Choice B is 44, which is the same as (22 )4 or 28. It is important to note that when you take an exponent to a power, the exponent and the power term are multiplied. Choice C is 83, or (23)3 = 29. Choice D is 162, which equals (24 )2 or 28. Now you can see that choice C is correct because it has the greatest exponent.

## MATH

Farmer Smith enclosed his rectangular pasture with fence that cost him \$1.50 per linear meter. If his pasture is twice as long as it is wide with a total area of 180,000 square meters, then what was the cost, in dollars, of the fence?

1,200

1,500

1,800
2700

Question #7

Farmer Smith enclosed his rectangular pasture with fence that cost him \$1.50 per linear meter. If his pasture is twice as long as it is wide with a total area of 180,000 square meters, then what was the cost, in dollars, of the fence?

1. 1,200
2. 1,500
3. 1,800
4. 2,700

The correct answer is (D)

In this question, we are told that a farmer enclosed a rectangular pasture with a fence that has a length that is twice as long as the width. The total area of the pasture is 180,000 square meters. We are asked to determine the cost of the entire fence given that is costs \$1.50 per linear meter. The pasture is a rectangle and the area of a rectangle equals its length(L) times the width(W); hence, L×W= 180,000. Since the length of the fence is twice as long as the width, substitute 2W for L in the area formula to get 2W×W = 180,000. Dividing both sides of the equation by 2, we get that W2 = 90,000. Solving for WW =  or 300. The width of the fence is 300 meters; therefore, the length must be 2 × 300 or 600 meters. Since the perimeter of the pasture is 2(300 + 600) or 1,800 meters and the cost of the fence is \$1.50 per meter, the total cost of the fence is \$1.5 times 1,800 or \$2,700. PCAT exam practice test questions.

## MATH

Paul’s average bowling score for a series was 164 and Dave’s was 158. If each of them bowled 4 games, how much greater was Paul’s total score for the series than Dave’s?

6

12

18
24

Question #8

Paul’s average bowling score for a series was 164 and Dave’s was 158. If each of them bowled 4 games, how much greater was Paul’s total score for the series than Dave’s?

1. 6
2. 12
3. 18
4. 24

The correct answer is (D)

In this question, we are told that Paul’s average bowling score for a series of 4 games was 164 and Dave’s was 158. We are asked to determine the total amount that Paul’s score was greater than Dave’s. Therefore, Paul’s score on average exceeded Dave’s score by 6 points per game, which means that for all 4 games Paul’s total score exceeded Dave’s total score by 4 × 6 points or 24 points. PCAT exam practice test questions.

## What is the inheritance pattern of the observed trait indicated by the pedigree below?

Autosomal recessive

Autosomal dominant

Cannot be determined

(A) “Autosomal recessive” is correct.

Pedigrees show the distribution of a single observable trait, or phenotype, across a family tree. In classical genetics, each phenotype is determined by a combination of two alleles contributed by two copies of the same (but not necessarily identical) chromosome. One allele is generally dominant, meaning it is expressed if it is present at all. In contrast, the other allele is recessive, meaning it is only expressed in the absence of a dominant allele, which generally means two copies need to be inherited to display the recessive phenotype. The exceptions are those alleles found on the X chromosome in males; males’ sex chromosomes include only one X (and one Y), so each trait coded for on the X chromosome is determined by only one allele instead of a combination of two alleles. This means it’s statistically more likely for males to inherit recessive X-linked traits since only one copy of the recessive alleles needs to be inherited to display the recessive phenotypes, as opposed to the usual two. PCAT exam practice test questions.

The fastest way to determine which inheritance pattern is shown by a pedigree, then, is to use the Kaplan shortcut: Identify whether two matching parents have an opposite offspring. If two affected parents have an unaffected offspring, both parents must have been heterozygous (having one of each allele), and the trait must be dominant: Rr  Rr  rr. If two unaffected parents have an affected offspring, both parents must have one again been heterozygous, but in that situation, the trait being tracked must have been the recessive one: Rr Rr  rr. In the pedigree provided in this question, generational skipping occurs in the middle portion: Generation 2 has two unaffected parents, but generation 3 has an affected offspring. This indicates a recessive trait. Since a roughly equal number of males and females are affected (5:4 ratio), this is an autosomal trait, and A is the correct answer.

## What is the oxidation state of each nickel on the reactant side of the following reaction?

2 NiO(OH) + Cd + 2 H₂O → 2 Ni(OH)₂ + Cd(OH)₂

–2

–1

+1
+3

(D) is correct.

Oxidation numbers provide a way to keep track of the movement of electrons in a reaction. Several rules govern how oxidation numbers are calculated, but in this situation, it’s only important to recognize the oxidation numbers of the common components attached to nickel [Ni] on the reactant side and to remember that the sum of the internal oxidation numbers of a molecule equals that molecule’s net charge. In this case, nickel oxide [NiO(OH)] is neutral, so the sum of its internal oxidation numbers must be 0. Hydroxide [OH] always has an oxidation number of -1, and oxygen [O] almost always has an oxidation number of -2. To make these charges cancel out to equal 0, the oxidation number of nickel [Ni] must be +3: 3 – 1 – 2 = 0. D is the correct answer. PCAT exam practice test questions.

## Given the following reaction conditions, which statement is most accurate?

The reaction follows first-order kinetics and is a concerted reaction.

The reaction follows first-order kinetics and involves formation of a carbocation.

The reaction follows second-order kinetics and is concerted.
The reaction follows second-order kinetics and involves formation of a carbocation.

(C) is correct.

This substitution reaction shows chloride (Cl) being replaced by hydroxide (OH). Substitution reactions occur mainly via one of two mechanisms: SN1 (unimolecular kinetics and two steps with a carbocation intermediate) or SN2 (biomolecular kinetics and one step). In this situation, the mechanism isn’t shown but can be inferred based on the reaction conditions. First, the reactant with the carbons (the substrate) has a strong leaving group; the Clthat detaches is relatively stable as an ion in solution by itself (think of how table salt, NaCl, is able to readily dissolve into Na+ and Cl in water). Second, the substrate has primary substitution, meaning the carbon attached to the leaving group is only attached to one other carbon, which in turn means that there is little steric hindrance but also that the carbon doesn’t have many other carbons to stabilize it if it were to gain a charge. Third, the other reactant, OH, is a strong base and strong nucleophile, indicating that it can readily attack the substrate on its own. Finally, the solvent DMSO (dimethyl sulfoxide) is polar aprotic so can stabilize the leaving group without deactivating the nucleophile. All of these factors point toward an SN2 reaction. Since an SN2 reactions is always concerted, occurring in one step without forming discrete intermediates, the correct answer is C.

## (R)-1-Fluoro-1-iodopropane is reacted with NaN₃ in HMPA. Which of the following is the major product of this reaction?

(R)-1-Azido-1-fluoropropane

(R)-1-Azido-1-iodopropane

(S)-1-Azido-1-fluoropropane
(S)-1-Azido-1-iodopropane

(A) is correct.

Although the reactants may look complicated, this reaction is actually just a classic SN2 reaction. Azide (N3) is the nucleophile, and iodide (I) is the leaving group. Note that, although fluorine is a halogen, fluoride (F) does not follow the group trend and is not a good leaving group due to its small size. With that substitution in mind, answer choices B and D can be eliminated.

However, SN2 reactions are stereoselective with an inversion of stereochemistry and therefore only create one of the two possible R-S isomers. Since the leaving group and the nucleophile end up having different priorities, the absolute configuration (R vs. S) must be recalculated. Start by drawing out the new molecule (remembering to invert the stereochemistry, like turning an umbrella inside out) and ranking the attached atoms in order of decreasing atom mass: F > N > C > H. From there, connect 1  2  3 with an arrow. The arrow is counterclockwise, initially indicating an S configuration. Finally, check atom 4: If it is into the page, leave the configuration how it is; if it is coming out of the page, reverse the configuration. In this case, H is coming out of the page, so the final configuration is R, and the correct answer is A. PCAT exam practice test questions.

## PCAT FAQ

QWhat is on the PCAT test?

AThe PCAT test assesses verbal ability, reading, writing, biology, chemistry, and quantitative ability.

QWhat is considered a good score on the PCAT?

AAnything above 430 is considered a good score on the PCAT.

QHow long is the PCAT score good for? PCAT exam practice test questions.

APCAT scores are good for 5 years after the test is taken.

QHow much does it cost to take the PCAT? PCAT exam practice test questions.

AIt costs \$210 to register for the PCAT, which can be done online or via mail.

QAre you allowed to use a calculator on the PCAT?

ANo, test-takers are not allowed to use a calculator on the PCAT.

QHow long does it take to get results from the PCAT?

AIt takes approximately five weeks to receive results from the PCAT. These scores can be viewed online for a year after your testing date. PCAT exam practice test questions.

### 10 Things to Know Before Taking the PCAT

Published: December 1st, 2017

The PCAT weighs heavily on the minds of many hopeful pharmacy students. This feeling of dread is understandable. It’s yet another standardized test; an added high-pressure barrier to the next objective in the course of your life. Fortunately, like most standardized tests, the PCAT code can be cracked through proper PCAT test prep and test-taking strategies. Understanding these 10 nuggets of truth and wisdom can help improve your performance.

Know the test

The PCAT is divided into four subtests to be taken over the course of four hours. The subtests are Biology, Chemistry, Quantitative Ability and Reading Comprehension. Knowing the different subject areas and how long you’ll have to complete them will allow you to hone in on your strengths and weaknesses during your PCAT test prep. PCAT exam practice test questions.

Complete the coursework

This one may seem obvious, but some students get ahead of themselves when it comes to taking the PCAT. Make sure you’ve completed Biology I and II, General Chemistry I and II, Calculus, and are at the very least enrolled in Organic Chemistry I before tackling PCAT test prep PCAT exam practice test questions.

Don’t procrastinate

Many of you are probably reading this and thinking, “easier said than done.” We’ve all been bitten by the procrastination bug, but it’s especially important to get ahead of the curve and take the PCAT early in the testing cycle. This grants you the opportunity to retake the test in case you did not perform as well as anticipated.

Review study guides

There are many PCAT test prep options available for different subsections of the test. These study guides usually include practice tests that will allow you to learn diverse types of questions and question formats that will be on the exam. Dr. Collins, Kaplan, and Pearson are all popular providers of study guides.

Focus on unfamiliar subjects

If you’re preparing for a career as a pharmacist, chances are your coursework leaned more towards the sciences than liberal arts. If that’s the case, it may do you well to prepare more thoroughly for subjects you haven’t seen in a while.

Know your study habits

Going blind into PCAT test prep for a test this robust can be overwhelming. If you’re the type of person who can’t concentrate alone, find a study group. If you can’t study for more than 15 minutes at a time without getting distracted, plan a day of studying in 15-minute intervals with breaks in between. It doesn’t matter how you study, as long as you study in a way that keeps you motivated. PCAT exam practice test questions.

Don’t “experiment”

Just because you can take the PCAT more than once doesn’t mean you should take the test just to see how well you do. If you go into the PCAT with the mindset that you can always take it again, you’ll never be able to adequately prepare for the exam, and you may miss out on an edition of the test that plays more to your strengths. Go with the sports approach of treating every practice like a game; you’ll be well prepared when game time rolls around.

First attempt, last chance

It’s risky to let the last test of a PCAT test cycle be your first attempt at the exam. Not only will you not have another chance to retake the exam if you do poorly, but also knowing it’s your last chance may increase stress and cause poor performance.

Find the right balance

Students who have scored well on the PCAT reported working on PCAT test prep 90 minutes daily for a month leading up to the test. That’s far from intensive, but it’s also far from lackadaisical. Twenty minutes a day of studying isn’t going to be sufficient, and a 24-hour cram session leading up to the exam won’t be very fruitful either.

There are a great variety of PCAT test prep materials, all with their own strengths and weaknesses — one large, catch-all Kaplan book may not be sufficient. One of the most effective ways to prepare for the exam is through timed Pearson practice tests. In addition to Kaplan, many publishers offer preparation booklets, such as Barron’s, McGraw-Hill, and CliffsTestPrep.

We hope these tips will help with your PCAT test prep. Don’t forget the time-honored test-taking advice: get a good night of sleep, eat a healthy breakfast and don’t stress. Best of luck!

1. Which of the following organelles helps green plants synthesize organic compounds like starch in the presence of sunlight?

a. Mitochondria
b. Chloroplast
c. Ribosomes
d. Golgi body

1. (b) Green plants, with the help of sunlight and in the presence of enzymes, synthesize organic compounds like starch from inorganic compounds like CO2 and H2O. This is known as photosynthesis. Chloroplast is the organelle to perform photosynthesis. Plants that are devoid of chloroplast cannot synthesize starch.

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#### 2. Which of the following is described as the “power house of the cell”?

a. Endoplasmic reticulum
b. Ribosomes
c. Mitochondria
d. Vacuoles

2. (c) Mitochondria is known as the “power house of the cell”. It is involved in the continuous production of energy. It releases necessary energy for different functions of the cell through processes like respiration, electron transport and oxidative phosphorylation.

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#### 3. Virus should be classified as:

a. Akaryotic
b. Eukaryotic
c. Prokaryotic
d. Nokaryotic

3. (a) Each cell has two main components – Cytoplasm and the nucleus. Usually there is a nucleus in the cell. Organisms without any cytoplasmic organizations and devoid of definite nuclear material are grouped as Akaryota. (e.g. Virus) Organisms having a primitive type of nucleus in cell, are classified Prokaryota. (e.g. Bacteria and Blue green algae.) Organisms having a cell with a well developed nucleus are grouped as Eukaryota. (e.g. Fungi-yeast, mushroom). PCAT exam practice test questions.

#### 4. In the process of Mitosis, if the number of chromosomes in the mother cell is designated as 2n, how many chromosomes will be present in each daughter cell?

a. 2n
b. n
c. 4n
d. 8n

4. (a) Cell division is a very complex process. There are two main types of cell division:

1. Mitosis
2. Meiosis

1 Mitosis: In this type of cell division, chromosomes are equally distributed in each daughter cell. As a result, the number of chromosomes in the daughter cells is the same as that in the mother cell. It is also known as equational division. (e.g. Somatic cells division)

2. Meiosis: In this type of cell division, chromosomes are divided in half of the original mother cells, therefore the daughter cells consist of half the number of chromosomes that are in the mother cell. (e.g. reproductive or sex cells division)

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#### 5. Nitrogen fixing bacteria on root nodules of Leguminous plants are known as:

a. Azobacteria
b. Nanobacteria
c. Rhizobium bacteria
d. Mycobacteria

5. (c) Nitrogen fixing bacteria on root nodules of Leguminous plants are known as Rhizobium. They fix the atmospheric nitrogen and convert it into ammonia. The nitrogen fixing bacteria are also known as nitrifying bacteria.

Azobacteria are present in the soil. They convert atmospheric nitrogen into nitrates and nitrites. In this way, they increase the fertility of the soil. These ammonium nitrates and nitrites are then absorbed by plants to obtain nitrogen.

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#### 6. Which of the following nitrogen bases is present in RNA but absent in DNA?

a. Cytosine
b. Uracil
c. Guanine

6. (b) RNA consists of ribose pentose sugar. Unlike DNA, it consists of only one polynucleotide chain. It also contains two purine and pyrimidine bases. Uracil (U) is the nitrogen base which is present in RNA but absent in DNA. Thus RNA contains Adenine (A) and Guanine (G) as purine bases, and Cytosine (C) and Uracil (U) as pyrimidine bases. PCAT exam practice test questions.

#### 7. Which of the following polysaccharides is largely stored in the liver and muscles?

a. Cellulose
b. Starch
c. Glycogen
d. Inulin

7. (c) Glycogen is considered the principal storage form of glucose and is found mainly in the liver and muscle, with kidney and intestines adding minor storage sites. Glycogen is formed by the liver from glucose in the bloodstream and is stored in the liver. Glycogen is also produced by and stored in muscle cells; during short periods of strenuous activity, energy is released in the muscles by direct conversion of glycogen to lactic acid. During normal activity, energy is released by metabolic oxidation of glucose to lactic acid. Glycogenesis (formation of glycogen from glucose) and glycogenolysis (break down of glycogen into glucose) are two principal mechanisms by which blood glucose level has been maintained.

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#### 8. Which of the following provides the necessary freedom for bones as well as protect joints from external injury and bones from dislocation?

a. Cartilage
b. Ligaments
c. Tendons
d. Muscles

8. (b) Ligaments are strong flexible white fibrous bands. They bind the articular surfaces of bones together. They provide necessary freedom for the bones as well as protect joints from external injury and bones from dislocation. Tendons are white bands which join muscles with bones while ligaments hold bones together at joints and are inelastic. PCAT exam practice test questions

#### 9. Which of the following lipids in a cell membrane acts as a selective barrier for controlling the exit and entry of substances into and out of the cell?

a. Cholesterol
b. Glycolipids
c. Phospholipids
d. Lipoproteins

9. (c) The primary type of lipids found in the cell membrane are phospholipids, cholesterol and glycolipids. Out of these, phospholipids play an important role in controlling the movement of substances into and out of the cell. In general, lipid soluble substances are allowed to move into the cell whereas water soluble molecules are restricted or not allowed to pass through the cell membrane.

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#### 10. Bile mainly helps in the digestion of:

a. Fats
b. Proteins
c. Carbohydrates
d. Bile pigments

10. (a) Bile (or gall) is a bitter, greenish-yellow alkaline fluid secreted by the liver of most vertebrates. It helps in the complete digestion of fats by reducing surface tension. It also activates the enzyme lipase. It serves as a good solvent for fats and fat-splitting enzymes. Bile also helps in absorption of carbohydrates, fats, fat soluble vitamins and proteins. PCAT exam practice test questions

#### 11. The region in space where an electron is likely to be found is called a(n):

a. Axis
b. Cloud
c. Orbital
d. Configuration

11. (c) The region in space where an electron is likely to be found is called an orbital. There are different kinds of orbitals with different sizes and shapes. The orbital at the lowest energy level is defined as a 1s orbital. It is a sphere with its center at the nucleus of the atom PCAT exam practice test questions. The next higher energy level is called a 2s orbital. It is larger than a 1s orbital. Since it has a higher energy level, it has lower stability compared to a 1s orbital. This is because the average distance between the nucleus and electrons in a 2s orbital is greater than in a 1s orbital. The next three orbitals are of equal energy, known as 2p orbitals. They are dumbbell-shaped. They are further differentiated by the names 2px, 2py, and 2pz, where the x, y, and z refer to the corresponding axes.

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#### 12. Which of the following atoms has the highest electronegativity?

a. Cl
b. Br
c. N
d. F

12. (d) In the covalent bond, two atoms are joined by sharing electrons. Both nuclei are held by the same electron cloud. However, in most cases the two nuclei do not share the electrons equally. This happens when one atom has more electron withdrawing power than the other atom. At this time the electron cloud is denser on one atom. This result in one end of the bond being relatively negative and the other end being relatively positive. Such a bond is said to be a polar bond or to possess polarity. The bond possesses polarity when joins atoms have different tendency to attract electrons. This property of the atom is called electronegativity. Out of the given choices, fluorine (F) possess the highest electronegativity. F > O > Cl, N > Br > C, H

13. (c) The molecular formula for methyl chloride is CH3Cl. The mass of a chlorine atom in methyl chloride is 35.5 gm/mole. The molecular weight of methyl chloride is 50.5 gm/mole (1C = 12, 3H = 3 and 1Cl = 35.5). Therefore, the % mass of chlorine in methyl chloride will be 35.5/50.5 = 70% PCAT exam practice test questions

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#### 13. What would be the percentage mass of chlorine in a molecule of methyl chloride? (C = 12 gm/mole, H = 1 gm/mole, Cl = 35.5 gm/mole).

a. 18 %
b. 50 %
c. 70 %
d. 12 %

13. (c) The molecular formula for methyl chloride is CH3Cl. The mass of a chlorine atom in methyl chloride is 35.5 gm/mole. The molecular weight of methyl chloride is 50.5 gm/mole (1C = 12, 3H = 3 and 1Cl = 35.5). Therefore, the % mass of chlorine in methyl chloride will be 35.5/50.5 = 70%

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#### 14. Which of the following is found to be different in isotopes of the same chemical element?

a. Protons
b. Neutrons
c. Electrons
d. Atomic number

14. (b) Isotopes are defined as forms of the same chemical element that differ only by the number of neutrons in their nucleus. Most elements have more than one naturally occurring isotope. The atomic number “Z” is the same in such elements, however their atomic mass “A” is different due to differ numbers of neutrons in the nucleus of the atom PCAT exam practice test questions.

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#### 15. Which of the following groups of the periodic table contains alkali metals?

a. Group I A
b. Group II A
c. Group VII A
d. Group VIII A

15. (a) The alkali metals, found in group 1 of the periodic table (formerly known as group IA), are very reactive metals that do not occur freely in nature. These metals have only one electron in their outer shell. Therefore, they are ready to lose that one electron in ionic bonding with other elements. As with all metals, the alkali metals are malleable, ductile, and are good conductors of heat and electricity. The alkali metals are softer than most other metals. Cesium and francium are the most reactive elements in this group. PCAT exam practice test questions Alkali metals can explode if they are exposed to water. The Alkali Metals are: lithium (Li), Sodium (Na), Potassium (K), Rubidium (Rb), Cesium (Cs), Francium (Fr).

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#### 17. Home ovulation tests usually detect a preovulatory surge in which of the following in the urine?

a. Prolactin
b. Oestrogen
c. Oxytocin
d. Progesterone
e. Luteinizing hormone

17. Home ovulation tests usually detect a preovulatory surge in which of the following in the urine?

a. Prolactin
b. Oestrogen
c. Oxytocin
d. Progesterone
e. Luteinizing hormone

Answer: (e). An ovulation home test is used by women to help determine the time in the menstrual cycle when getting pregnant is most likely. The test detects a rise in luteinizing hormone (LH) in the urine. A rise in this hormone signals the ovary to release the egg.

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#### 18. Which of the following information is TRUE ABOUT anaerobic respiration? (Select All that apply)

a. Waste products are carbon dioxide and water.
b. It may produce between 36 and 38 ATP molecules.
c. In animals, including humans, the anaerobic cycle produces lactic acid, which causes muscle cramps.
d. The fermentation process in anaerobic respiration is roughly 5 percent as effective as what cells can do when they have access to oxygen PCAT exam practice test questions.
e. In bacteria, it may produce nitrite, nitrogen gas, hydrogen sulfide, methane and acetic acid.

18. Which of the following information is TRUE ABOUT anaerobic respiration? (Select All that apply)

a. Waste products are carbon dioxide and water.
b. It may produce between 36 and 38 ATP molecules.
c. In animals, including humans, the anaerobic cycle produces lactic acid, which causes muscle cramps.
d. The fermentation process in anaerobic respiration is roughly 5 percent as effective as what cells can do when they have access to oxygen.
e. In bacteria, it may produce nitrite, nitrogen gas, hydrogen sulfide, methane and acetic acid.

Answer (c, d and e). “Anaerobic” means without oxygen, and respiration refers to the processes in a cell that convert biochemical energy, such as that found in glucose, into usable energy in the form of ATP. Waste products like carbon dioxide are also produced during this process.

The fermentation process in anaerobic respiration is roughly 5 percent as effective as what cells can do when they have access to oxygen. An aerobic cycle may produce between 36 and 38 ATP molecules, while anaerobic respiration only creates 2 ATP molecules. PCAT exam practice test questions.

Since muscles often run out of oxygen during extreme exertion, anaerobic respiration keeps them running. In animals, including humans, the anaerobic cycle produces lactic acid, which causes muscle cramps. In order for these cramps to stop, oxygen must find its way back into the muscle again so these cells can switch back to aerobic respiration and stop building up lactic acid.

Anaerobic respiration is also common in bacteria that live in environments without oxygen; depending on the bacteria, the products of their respiration include nitrite, nitrogen gas, hydrogen sulfide, methane and acetic acid.

#### 19. Which of the following best describes the Capitation System?

a. Risk free income for healthcare service providers.
b. Healthcare provider may get more incentive to provide an extended treatment to a patient.
c. A fixed amount of money per patient per unit of time paid in advance to the physician for the delivery of health care services. PCAT exam practice test questions.
d. A patient gets more benefit if he/she gets services from Healthcare provider receiving reimbursement through capitation.
e. Free prescription benefits to patients.

19. Which of the following best describes the Capitation System?

a. Risk free income for healthcare service providers.
b. Healthcare provider may get more incentive to provide an extended treatment to a patient.
c. A fixed amount of money per patient per unit of time paid in advance to the physician for the delivery of health care services.
d. A patient gets more benefit if he/she gets services from Healthcare provider receiving reimbursement through capitation.
e. Free prescription benefits to patients.

Answer: Capitation payments are used by managed care organizations to control health care costs. Capitation payments control use of health care resources by putting the physician at financial risk for services provided to patients PCAT exam practice test questions. At the same time, in order to ensure that patients do not receive suboptimal care through under-utilization of health care services, managed care organizations measure rates of resource utilization in physician practices. These reports are made available to the public as a measure of health care quality, and can be linked to financial rewards, such as bonuses.

Capitation is a fixed amount of money per patient per unit of time paid in advance to the physician for the delivery of health care services. The actual amount of money paid is determined by the ranges of services that are provided, the number of patients involved, and the period of time during which the services are provided. Capitation rates are developed using local costs and average utilization of services and therefore can vary from one region of the country to another. In many plans, a risk pool is established as a percentage of the capitation payment. Money in this risk pool is withheld from the physician until the end of the fiscal year. If the health plan does well financially, the money is paid to the physician; if the health plan does poorly, the money is kept to pay the deficit expenses.

When the primary care provider signs a capitation agreement, a list of specific services that must be provided to patients is included in the contract. The amount of the capitation will be determined in part by the number of services provided and will vary from health plan to health plan, but most capitation payment plans for primary care services include the following:

·         Preventive, diagnostic, and treatment services
·         Injections, immunizations, and medications administered in the office
·         Outpatient laboratory tests done either in the office or at a designated laboratory
·         Health education and counseling services performed in the office
·         Routine vision and hearing screening PCAT exam practice test questions

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#### 20. Which of the following information is/are TRUE ABOUT Essential Fatty Acids? [Select ALL That Apply]

a. Linoleic and alpha-linolenic are essential fatty acids.
b. Arachidonic acid is classified as ‘conditionally essential’ fatty acid.
c. Ideally, in the diet, the ratio of omega-6 to omega-3 fatty acids should be between 1:1 and 4:1.
d. Excessive intake of omega-6 fatty acids can cause the deficiency of omega-3 fatty acids.

20. Which of the following information is/are TRUE ABOUT Essential Fatty Acids? [Select ALL That Apply]

a. Linoleic and alpha-linolenic are essential fatty acids.
b. Arachidonic acid is classified as ‘conditionally essential’ fatty acid.
c. Ideally, in the diet, the ratio of omega-6 to omega-3 fatty acids should be between 1:1 and 4:1.
d. Excessive intake of omega-6 fatty acids can cause the deficiency of omega-3 fatty acids.

Answer (a, b, c and d). Essential fatty acids, or EFAs, are fatty acids that humans and other animals must ingest because the body requires them for good health but cannot synthesize them.

Only two fatty acids are known to be essential for humans: alpha-linolenic acid (an omega-3 fatty acid) and linoleic acid (an omega-6 fatty acid) PCAT exam practice test questions. Some other fatty acids are sometimes classified as “conditionally essential,” meaning that they can become essential under some developmental or disease conditions; examples include docosahexaenoic acid and gamma-linolenic acid.

It is not only important to incorporate good sources of omega-3 and omega-6s in a diet, but also consume these fatty acids in the proper ratio. Omega-6 fatty acids compete with omega-3 fatty acids for use in the body, and therefore excessive intake of omega-6 fatty acids can inhibit the use of omega-3 fatty acids by the body.

Ideally, the ratio of omega-6 to omega-3 fatty acids should be between 1:1 and 4:1. Instead, most Americans consume these fatty acids at a ratio of omega-6: omega-3 between 10:1 and 25:1, and are consequently unable to reap the benefits of omega-3s.

This imbalance is due to a reliance on processed foods and oils, which are now common in the Western diet. To combat this issue it is necessary to eat a low-fat diet with minimal processed foods and with naturally occurring omega-3 fatty acids. A lower omega-6: omega-3 ratio is desirable for reducing the risk of many chronic diseases.

Arachidonic acid is not one of the essential fatty acids. However, it does become essential if there is a deficiency in linoleic acid or if there is an inability to convert linoleic acid to arachidonic acid. PCAT exam practice test questions.